When a tester executes a test and observes behaviour that differs from the specification, this is called a: a) defect b) error c) failure d) mistake e) fault Which of the following best describes regression testing? v) Testing to ensure unchanged areas still work w) Testing after a fix x) Testing after environment changes y) Testing after code refactoring z) Testing only at the end of the project a) v, w & y are true b) v & w are true c) v, w, x & y are true d) w & z are true e) all are true Which of the following is NOT included in IEEE 829 test documentation? a) Test summary report b) Test design specification c) Test incident report d) Test risk assessment e) Test log Testing should be stopped when: a) All planned tests are executed b) The exit criteria have been met c) No more defects are being found d) Time runs out e) Both b and c ...
- When a tester executes a test and observes behaviour that differs from the specification, this is called a:
- a) defect
b) error
c) failure
d) mistake
e) fault -
Which of the following best describes regression testing?
v) Testing to ensure unchanged areas still work
w) Testing after a fix
x) Testing after environment changes
y) Testing after code refactoring
z) Testing only at the end of the project
a) v, w & y are true
b) v & w are true
c) v, w, x & y are true
d) w & z are true
e) all are true -
Which of the following is NOT included in IEEE 829 test documentation?
a) Test summary report
b) Test design specification
c) Test incident report
d) Test risk assessment
e) Test log -
Testing should be stopped when:
a) All planned tests are executed
b) The exit criteria have been met
c) No more defects are being found
d) Time runs out
e) Both b and c -
A password field accepts 6–12 characters. Which set represents valid equivalence partition tests?
a) 5, 6, 12, 13 characters
b) 6, 8, 12 characters
c) 1, 6, 12, 20 characters
d) 0, 6, 12
e) 6, 12, 13 -
Early involvement of testers helps because:
i. It reduces the cost of fixing defects
ii. It prevents requirement misunderstandings
iii. It increases defect multiplication
iv. It improves testability
v. It delays development
a) i, ii & iv are true
b) i & iv are true
c) ii & v are true
d) i, ii, iv & v are true
e) i & iii are true -
Which of the following is a non‑functional test?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Stress testing
c) State transition testing
d) Decision table testing
e) Use case testing -
Which is NOT part of configuration management?
a) Version control
b) Status accounting
c) Change history
d) Test case prioritisation
e) Baseline identification -
The purpose of an integration strategy is to:
a) Define how modules are combined
b) Ensure all modules are unit tested
c) Ensure the system meets business needs
d) Define the test environment
e) Ensure the test team is small -
Test completion criteria help determine:
a) When a test case ends
b) When testing can stop
c) When planning is complete
d) When coding is complete
e) When defects are fixed -
Which statement is TRUE about incidents?
a) Incidents can only be raised for code
b) Incidents must always be fixed
c) Incidents may be closed without a fix
d) Incidents cannot relate to documentation
e) Incidents must be raised by developers -
Code coverage:
Read X Read Y IF X > 10 THEN Print "High" ENDIF IF Y < 5 THEN Print "Low" ENDIF
Minimum tests for full branch coverage:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5 -
Code coverage:
Start system IF login succeeds THEN Load dashboard ELSE Show error ENDIF Close system
Minimum tests for full statement coverage:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5 -
Code coverage:
IF A = B THEN C = A * 2 ELSE C = B * 3 ENDIF IF C > 20 THEN Print "Large" ENDIF
Minimum tests for full branch coverage:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5 -
Scenario coverage:
Reading a book → If tired, take a break → Otherwise continue reading → If finished, close book.
SC = ? DC = ?
a) SC=1, DC=1
b) SC=1, DC=2
c) SC=1, DC=3
d) SC=2, DC=2
e) SC=2, DC=3 -
Before selecting a test tool, the FIRST step is:
a) Compare vendors
b) Analyse needs
c) Check budget
d) Attend demos
e) Ask developers -
When introducing a new tool, who should use it first?
a) All testers
b) A pilot group
c) Developers
d) Managers
e) End users -
Static analysis CANNOT detect:
a) Unused variables
b) Dead code
c) Incorrect expected results
d) Unreachable branches
e) Variable re‑definition -
Which is NOT a black‑box technique?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Decision tables
c) State transition testing
d) Syntax testing
e) Control flow testing -
Alpha testing is:
a) Performed at the developer’s site
b) Performed by customers at home
c) Performed by independent testers
d) Performed after release
e) Performed only on mobile apps -
Which tools are typically used by developers?
i. Static analysis
ii. Performance testing
iii. Debugging
iv. Test management
v. Test execution
a) i & iii
b) i, ii & iii
c) ii, iii & v
d) i, iii & v
e) i, iv & v -
The main purpose of system testing is:
a) Verify components
b) Validate business processes
c) Validate user acceptance
d) Test interfaces only
e) Test performance only -
Which statement is FALSE?
a) Cyclomatic complexity is a white‑box measure
b) Black‑box techniques have associated coverage measures
c) White‑box techniques measure structural coverage
d) Boundary value analysis is a white‑box technique
e) Decision tables are black‑box -
Which is NOT true about inspections?
a) They are formal
b) They require trained moderators
c) They compare documents to predecessors
d) They require no documentation
e) They detect defects early -
A typical test execution tool CANNOT:
a) Record inputs
b) Replay scripts
c) Compare expected vs actual
d) Generate expected results automatically
e) Read data from files -
Re‑testing vs regression testing:
a) Re‑testing checks fixes; regression checks side effects
b) Re‑testing checks side effects; regression checks fixes
c) Re‑testing is earlier
d) Regression uses different environments
e) Regression is done only by developers -
Expected results should be:
a) Derived from code
b) Defined before execution
c) Only used in system testing
d) Optional
e) Written by developers only -
Test managers should NOT:
a) Sign off releases
b) Reallocate resources
c) Raise incidents
d) Report deviations
e) Provide risk information -
Unreachable code is best found by:
a) Static analysis
b) Test execution
c) Boundary testing
d) Reviews
e) Equivalence partitioning -
A tool that records incidents and supports traceability is a:
a) Debugger
b) Test management tool
c) Static analysis tool
d) Test execution tool
e) Coverage tool -
A test incident report does NOT need:
a) Expected vs actual
b) Steps to reproduce
c) Severity
d) How to fix
e) Environment details -
Match review types:
1. Led by author
2. Informal
3. No management
4. Uses entry/exit criteria
5. Led by moderator
s) Inspection
t) Walkthrough
u) Informal review
v) Peer review
a) s=5, t=1, u=2, v=3
b) s=4 & 5, t=1, u=2, v=3
c) s=1, t=3, u=2, v=5
d) s=5, t=3, u=1, v=2
e) s=4, t=1, u=3, v=2 -
Which is NOT part of system testing:
a) Usability
b) Performance
c) Business processes
d) Integration of modules only
e) Requirements‑based testing -
Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) They are derived from code
b) They include database changes
c) They include UI outputs
d) They include timing constraints
e) They should be predicted in advance -
Which standard defines testing terminology:
a) ISO 9001
b) BS7925‑1
c) IEEE 829
d) ISO 25010
e) IEEE 1028 -
Cost of fixing defects:
a) Is lowest during requirements
b) Increases later in lifecycle
c) Is highest during coding
d) Is unpredictable
e) Is irrelevant -
NOT included in a Test Plan:
a) Items to be tested
b) Items not to be tested
c) Test environment
d) Quality plans
e) Schedule -
Reviews are part of testing because:
a) They find defects early
b) They replace dynamic testing
c) They are optional
d) They are only for developers
e) They are only for test documents -
Which is NOT part of performance testing:
a) Load
b) Stress
c) Recovery
d) Response time
e) Scalability -
Error guessing is best used:
a) First
b) After formal techniques
c) Only by developers
d) Only after release
e) Only by end users
Answers:
1 c
2 c
3 d
4 e
5 b
6 a
7 b
8 d
9 a
10 b
11 c
12 b
13 b
14 c
15 e
16 b
17 b
18 c
19 e
20 a
21 a
22 b
23 d
24 d
25 d
26 a
27 b
28 a
29 a
30 b
31 d
32 b
33 d
34 a
35 b
36 b
37 d
38 a
39 c
40 b
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